CIVIL, UPSC, UPPSC, Other Pcs's : Indian Polity Online Test

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Q1). The Government of India Act 1935 was passed by which parliament ?

A. Indian Parliament

B. French Parliament

C. British Parliament

D. All of these

Answer: C

Description: The Government of India Act 1935 was originally passed by British Parliament in August 1935 and was the longest British Act of Parliament ever enacted by that time. The Government of Burma Act 1935 was also included in it.

Q2). Lok Sabha seats of Uttar Pradesh is _

A. 60

B. 31

C. 80

D. 70

Answer: C

Description: In Lok Sabha 80 and in Rajya Sabha 31 Seats from UP .

Q3). The council of states is the ________________ of the Indian Parliament?

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. Lower House

D. Panchayat Raj

Answer: B

Description: The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provision for 245 members.

Q4). Which of the following state has only 2 seats in Lok Sabha ?

A. Meghalaya

B. Manipur

C. Goa

D. All of these

Answer: D

Description: Tripura, Goa, Meghalaya, Manipur

Q5). The Panchayat raj system is not followed by which country ?

A. Pakistan

B. Tobago

C. Nepal

D. None of these

Answer: D

Description: The Panchayat raj is a South Asian political system found mainly in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Trinidad and Tobago, and Nepal.

Q6). Which state has the least number of seats in Lok Sabha ?

A. Sikkim

B. Nagaland

C. Mizoram

D. All of these

Answer: D

Description:

Q7). What is ‘Prorogation’ ?

A. Termination of a lifetime

B. Termination of a session

C. Termination of a sitting

D. Termination of the parliament

Answer: B

Description: Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Indian Constitution.

Q8). Lok Sabha seats West Bengal is ___?

A. 42

B. 35

C. 54

D. 32

Answer: A

Description:

Q9). Deletion of words, phrases or expressions from the proceedings or records of Rajya Sabha is known as ___?

A. Guillotine

B. Bulletin

C. Lobby

D. Expunction

Answer: D

Description: Expunction”-Deletion of words, phrases or expressions from the proceedings or records of Rajya Sabha by an order of the Chairman as being defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified.

Q10). Adjournment means _____?

A. Terminates the sitting of the House

B. Changes the sitting of the House

C. Terminates the session of the House

D. Changes the session of the House

Answer: A

Description: Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.

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Economics(Rural Dev & Schemes) Online Test

CIVIL, UPSC, UPPSC, Other Pcs's : Economics(Rural Dev & Schemes) Online Test

Welcome to Online Tests

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Q1). __ is the type of cut motion aims that the amount of demand be reduced to certain other amount -

A. Token Cut

B. Policy Cut

C. Economy Cut

D. Cut Motion

Answer: C

Description: Economy cut is the type of cut motion aims that the amount of demand be reduced to certain other amount and it represents that the demand for grants should be altered.

Q2). National Disaster Response Fund maintained by which ministry ?

A. Ministry of Urban Development

B. Ministry of Home Affairs

C. Ministry of Finance

D. Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: B

Description: National Disaster Response Fund operated by Ministry of Home affairs. NDRF was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Q3). A land previously used for industrial purposes or some other uses is known as

A. Brownfield

B. Blackfield

C. Pinkfield

D. whitefield

Answer: A

Description: Brownfield project simply means: an already existing/ stalled project.

Q4). Currency depreciation is the ____?

A. Gain of value of a foreign’s currency

B. Gain of value of a country’s currency

C. Loss of value of a country’s currency

D. Loss of value of a foreign’s currency

Answer: C

Description: Currency depreciation is the loss of value of a country’s currency with respect to one or more foreign reference currencies, typically in a floating exchange rate system.

Q5). Which project is one that lacks constraints imposed by prior work ?

A. Blackfield Project

B. Brownfield Project

C. Redfield Project

D. Greenfield Project

Answer: D

Description: A Greenfield project simply means: a new project.

Q6). The Public Distribution System (PDS) is operated under the responsibility of __

A. State

B. Central

C. Both Central and State

D. Public Work Department

Answer: C

Description:

Q7). Indian NGOs mainly comes under how many segments ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: C

Description: Indian NGOs mainly comes under three segments – Societies, Trusts, Charitable Companies.

Q8). Government has issued clarification on GAAR will come into effect from April 1, 2017. What is GAAR ?

A. Group of Anti-Avoidance Rule

B. General Anti-Avoidance Rule

C. General Anticeptic-Avoidance Rule

D. General Anti-Avoidance Regulations

Answer: B

Description: The Union Government on January 27, 2017 issued clarification on GAAR that General Anti-Avoidance (GAAR) Rule will come into effect from April 1, 2017. The General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) seeks to prevent companies from routing transactions through other countries to avoid taxes.

Q9). ___ is currency in circulation plus Deposits of Commercial Banks with RBI.

A. Reserve money

B. Narrow money and High-powered money

C. Central bank money

D. All of these

Answer: D

Description:

Q10). ZED Certification Scheme related to which sectors ?

A. SME

B. Banking Institutions

C. Agricultural Institutions

D. MSME

Answer: D

Description: ZED Certification Scheme covers all the MSME sectors belonging to manufacturing. ZED or Zero Defect, Zero Effect scheme is a new initiative launched by the Narendra Modi led NDA government. The scheme is for MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises) Sector to increase the quality of products matching global standards.

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World Geography(Location, National Parks) Online Test

CIVIL, UPSC, UPPSC, Other Pcs's : World Geography(Location, National Parks) Online Test

Welcome to Online Tests

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Q1). The Machu Pichu is the archaeological site located in -

A. Ecuador

B. Peru

C. Bolivia

D. France

Answer: B

Description: Machu Picchu is an Incan citadel set high in the Andes Mountains in Peru, above the Urubamba River valley.

Q2). Adam’s Bridge is located between which two country ?

A. China and Malaysia

B. Nepal and China

C. India and Sri lanka

D. Bangaldesh and China

Answer: C

Description: Adam’s Bridge, also known as Rama’s Bridge or Rama Setu, is a chain of limestone shoals, between Pamban Island, also known as Rameswaram Island, off the south-eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Q3). The Abu Simbel temples are situated in which country ?

A. Azerbaijan

B. Sudan

C. Malaysia

D. Egypt

Answer: D

Description: The Abu Simbel temples are two massive rock temples at Abu Simbel, a village in Nubia, southern Egypt, near the border with Sudan.

Q4). Elba is a Mediterranean island in which country ?

A. Italy

B. Austria

C. Moscow

D. None of the Above

Answer: A

Description: Elba is a Mediterranean island in Tuscany, Italy, 10 kilometres from the coastal town of Piombino, the largest island of the Tuscan Archipelago.

Q5). The Empire State Building is situated in ____________ ?

A. China

B. USA

C. Russia

D. France

Answer: B

Description:

Q6). The Jigme Dorji National Park is situated in ?

A. China

B. Nepal

C. Arunanchal Pradesh

D. Bhutan

Answer: D

Description: The Jigme Dorji National Park, named after the late Jigme Dorji Wangchuck, is the second-largest National Park of Bhutan.

Q7). Banff National Park is belongs to which country ?

A. USA

B. France

C. Canada

D. Russia

Answer: C

Description: Banff National Park is Canada’s oldest national park, established in 1885 in the Rocky Mountains.

Q8). ______ is considered to be the world’s first national park ?

A. Hailey National Park

B. Kruger National Park

C. Yosemite National Park

D. Yellowstone National Park

Answer: D

Description: In 1872, Yellowstone National Park was established as the United States’ first national park, being also the world’s first national park.

Q9). Which is the world’s largest national park ?

A. Northeast Greenland National Park

B. Everglades National Park

C. Caniama National Park

D. Glacier National Park

Answer: A

Description: It is the largest protected land area in the world.

Q10). Kruger National Park is situated in _ ?

A. USA

B. Australia

C. Sri Lanka

D. South Africa

Answer: D

Description: Kruger National Park, in northeastern South Africa, is one of Africa’s largest game reserves. Its high density of wild animals includes the Big 5: lions, leopards, rhinos, elephants and buffalos.

Score:

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Geography(Monsoon, Winds) Online Test

Union Budget for Financial Year 2017-18 :: Part-III Online Test

Welcome to Online Tests

Time Remaining:

Q1). What is the pegged fiscal deficit for 2017-18 as proposed in Union Budget 2017-18?

A. 3.2 Percent of GDP

B. 1.4 Percent of GDP

C. 2.5 Percent of GDP

D. 3 Percent of GDP

Answer: A

Description: Fiscal deficit of 2017-18 pegged at 3.2% of the GDP. Government will remain committed to achieving 3% in the next year.

Q2). According to the Union Budget 2017-18, government has proposed to set up 2 strategic crude oil reserves in which of the following locations?

A. Cuttack in Odisha and Kota in Rajasthan

B. Cuttack in Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan

C. Chandikhole in Odisha and Kota in Rajasthan

D. Chandikhole in Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan

Answer: D

Description: Finance Minister has proposed to set up strategic crude oil reserves at 2 more locations, namely, Chandikhole in Odisha and Bikaner in Rajasthan. This will take the strategic reserve capacity to 15.33 MMT

Q3). As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the government aims to eliminate unmanned level crossings on Broad Gauge lines by which year?

A. 2018

B. 2022

C. 2020

D. 2019

Answer: C

Description:

Q4). As per the Union Budget 2017-18, the allowable provision for Non-Performing Asset of Banks has been increased from 7.5 percent to ______ percent?

A. 7.8 %

B. 8.5 %

C. 9.5 %

D. 10 %

Answer: B

Description: The finance minister has proposed to increase allowable provision for Non-Performing Asset of banks from 7.5 per cent to 8.5 per cent.

Q5). The total allocation under MGNREGA has been increased to all time high at Rs. ________ in the Budget Estimate 2017.

A. Rs. 48000 crore

B. Rs. 44000 crore

C. Rs. 38000 crore

D. Rs. 58000 crore

Answer: A

Description: The government has allocated Rs 48,000 crore to the scheme in this year’s Budget. The rural development ministry is expecting more funds at its disposal for the next fiscal.

Q6). The government aims to bring one crore households out of poverty and 50,000 Gram Panchayats poverty free by which year?

A. 2020

B. 2021

C. 2019

D. 2022

Answer: C

Description:

Q7). According to the Union Budget 2017, Women participation in MGNREGA has increased to ________ percent from less than 48 percent.

A. 58 %

B. 55 %

C. 60 %

D. 56 %

Answer: B

Description: 55 % from 48 %

Q8). Based on the Union Budget 2017-18, Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion programme (SANKALP) will be launched at a cost of Rs. ___________.

A. Rs. 5000 crores

B. Rs. 6000 crores

C. Rs. 4000 crores

D. Rs. 8000 crores

Answer: C

Description:

Q9). How much amount of assistance would be provided to the National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) as per the Union Budget 2017-18?

A. Rs. 69 Lakhs

B. Rs. 75 Lakhs

C. Rs. 85 Lakhs

D. Rs. 79 Lakhs

Answer: B

Description: Coverage of National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) increased from the current 250 Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) to 585 APMCs. Assistance of Rs. 75 lakh to each APMCs .

Q10). Which among the given statements are true as per the Union Budget 2017-18?
i. For imparting new skills to people in rural areas, mason training will be provided to 5 lakh persons by 2022
ii. Sanitation coverage in rural India has gone up from 42% in Oct 2014 to about 60%.
iii. Allocation for Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Program and Credit Support Schemes has been increased three times.
iv. A programme of “human resource reforms for results” will be launched during 2017-18 for human resources development in Panchayati Raj Institutions -

A. Only ii, iii & iv

B. Only ii, & iv

C. Only i, ii, iv

D. All Are Correct

Answer: D

Description:

Score:

See Also :-
Union Budget for Financial Year 2017-18 :: Part-II Online Test

Geography(Monsoon, Winds) Online Test

CIVIL, UPSC, UPPSC, Other Pcs's : Geography(Monsoon, Winds) Online Test

Welcome to Online Tests

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Q1). कथन(A) : वायुमंडल में नमी की मात्रा अक्षांश से सम्बद्ध है ;
कारण(R) : नमी को जलवाष्प के रूप में रखने की क्षमता तापमान से सम्बद्ध है;
नीचे कूट में सही विकल्प का चयन करे -

A. A और R दोनों सहीं हैं और R, A कि सही व्याख्या है

B. A और R दोनों सहीं हैं और R, A कि सही व्याख्या नहीं है

C. A सही है जबकि R गलत है

D. A गलत है जबकि R सही है

Answer: A

Description: नमी(Humidity) और तामपान(Temperature) में डायरेक्ट रिलेशन होता है वहीँ इक्वेटर से पोल्स की तरफ जाने पर नमी की मात्रा घटती जाती है ; नमी या आर्द्रता की सर्वाधिक मात्रा इक्वेटर पर जबकि कम मात्रा deserts में देखने को मिलती है

Q2). ग्रीष्मकाल में आर्द्र ऊष्मा (Humid Heat) का अनुभव होता है, जब मौसम -

A. उमस वाला(Muggy) होता है

B. अपक्व(Raw) होता है

C. तीक्ष्ण(Keen) होता है

D. झुलसाने वाला (scorching) होता है

Answer: A

Description: वायुमंडल में उपस्थित जलवाष्प की मात्रा को ही आर्द्रता कहते हैं तथा जल को वाष्प या गैस में परिवर्तित होने के लिए ऊष्मा की नीड होती है जिसे 'आर्द्र ऊष्मा' कहते हैं

Q3). निम्न में से कौन स बादल अत्यधिक तीव्र वर्षा के लिए उत्तरदायी होता है -

A. कपासी

B. पक्षाभ स्तरी

C. वर्षा स्तरी

D. कपासी वर्षा

Answer: C

Description: वर्षा स्तरी(Nimbo-stratus) बादल धरातल के अधिक नजदीक पाए जाते हैं काले रंग के इन बादलों के कारण अन्धकार सा छा जाता है और वर्षा खूब होती है

Q4). वायुदाब सबसे कम होता है

A. वसंत ऋतू में

B. ग्रीष्म ऋतू में

C. शीत ऋतु में

D. शरद ऋतु में

Answer: B

Description: तापमान का वायुदाब से विपरीत सम्बन्ध होता है अतः जब ग्रीष्म ऋतू में तापमान जादा होता है तब वायुदाब कम होगा

Q5). सर्वाधिक उंचाई के बादल हैं -

A. मध्य स्तरी

B. मध्य कपासी

C. वर्षा स्तरी

D. पक्षाभ स्तरी

Answer: D

Description: पक्षाभ स्तरी बादल सामान्यतयः 18,000 फीट की उंचाई से अधिक की ऊंचाई पर पाए जाते हैं

Q6). निम्न अक्षांश(उत्तरी अथवा दक्षिणी) में से 'हॉर्स-अक्षांश' है -

A. 45 डिग्री

B. 23.5 डिग्री

C. 60 डिग्री

D. 30 डिग्री

Answer: D

Description: विषुवत रेखा (equator) के नार्थ व southern hemishphere में 30 से 35 डिग्री तक में उच्च वायु दाब पाया जाता है इसे ही Horse Latitudes कहते हैं

Q7). 'सिमूम' कहाँ पर चलने वाली स्थानीय हवाएं हैं -

A. ऐल्प्स पर्वत के ढलान पर

B. अरब रेगिस्तान में

C. दक्षिणी कैलिफ़ोर्निया में

D. एनडीज पर्वत में

Answer: B

Description: 'सिमूम' अरब रेगिस्तान में चलने वाली शुष्क हवा है - कुर्दिस्तान इसी रेगिस्तान के अंतर्गत आता है

Q8). विश्व के किस समुद्र में 'लम्बी चालीसा' पवनें प्रवाहित होती हैं

A. हिन्द महासागर

B. उत्तरी सागर

C. कैरेबियन सागर

D. कोरल सागर

Answer: A

Description: तूफानी चालीसा(Roaring Forties) westerlies winds(पछुवा पवनें) होती हैं जो केवल 40-50 डिग्री अक्षांशों पर दक्षिणी गोलार्ध में मुख्यतः दक्षिण हिन्द महासागर में बहती हैं

Q9). दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध में पवन के बायीं ओर विचलन का कारण क्या है -

A. तापमान

B. चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र

C. दाब

D. पृथ्वी का घूर्णन

Answer: D

Description: दक्षिण गोलार्द्ध में पवनों के बायीं ओर विचलन व उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध में पवन के दायीं ओर के विचलन का कारण पृथिवी के घूर्णन के द्वारा उत्पन्न होने वाला 'कोरियोलिस बल' है

Q10). पवनों का मौसमी उत्क्रमण किसका प्रारूपि अभिलक्षण है

A. भूमध्यरेखीय जलवायु

B. मानसून जलवायु

C. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु

D. उपर्युक्त सभी जलवायु

Answer: B

Description: मानसूनी पवनें ग्रीष्म ऋतु में 6 माह समुद्र से स्थल की ओर जबकि शीत ऋतु में 6 माह स्थल से समुद्र की ओर चलती हैं

Score:

See also :-
Union Budget for Financial Year 2017-18 :: Part-II Online Test

Union Budget for Financial Year 2017-18 :: Part-II Online Test

Welcome to Online Tests

Time Remaining:

Q1). What is the total allocation made for rural, agriculture and allied sectors as per the Union Budget 2017-18?

A. Rs. 188,111 crores

B. Rs. 187,223 crores

C. Rs. 184,222 crores

D. Rs. 185,551 crores

Answer: B

Description: The total allocation for rural, agricultural and allied sectors for 2017-18 is a record Rs 1,87,223 crore which 24% from what was allocated last year.

Q2). What was the total percentage increase in the Capital expenditure as proposed in the Budget Estimate 2017-18 as compared to the previous year?

A. 25.4 Percent

B. 22.5 Percent

C. 20.5 Percent

D. 21.6 Percent

Answer: A

Description: Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has pegged the capital expenditure in 2017-18 at Rs 3.09 lakh crore, up 25.4 per cent from the Budget estimates of Rs 2.47 lakh crore for the current fiscal.

Q3). NABARD will set up dedicated micro-irrigation fund to achieve Per Drop More Crop mission. What is the initial corpus of the fund?

A. Rs. 4500 Crore

B. Rs. 5500 Crore

C. Rs. 4200 Crore

D. Rs. 5000 Crore

Answer: D

Description:

Q4). What is the total allocation made under the Fasal Bima Yojana in the Union Budget 2017-18?

A. Rs. 9000 crore

B. Rs. 7500 crore

C. Rs. 8000 crore

D. None of the Above

Answer: A

Description: Coverage under Fasal Bima Yojana scheme will be increased from 30% of cropped area in 2016-17 to 40% in 2017-18 and 50% in 2018-19 for which a budget provision of Rs. 9000 crore has been made.

Q5). Coverage under National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) has been increased from 250 Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) to _________ APMCs.

A. 455

B. 375

C. 585

D. 600

Answer: C

Description:

Q6). Which of the following statements are true in context to the Union Budget 2017-18?
i.100 stations will be made differently abled friendly by providing lifts and escalators in 2017-18. ii.By 2019, all coaches of Indian Railways will be fitted with bio toilets.
iii.It is proposed to feed about 7,000 stations with solar power in the medium term
iv.Railway lines of 3,500 kms will be commissioned in 2017-18.

A. Only i, iii & iv

B. Only i, ii, iv

C. Only ii & iii

D. Only ii, iii & iv

Answer: D

Description:

Q7). The tax rate for individuals with income between Rs. 2.5 Lakh and Rs.5 lakh has been reduced from 10 Percent to ______ Percent.

A. 7 %

B. 5 %

C. 4 %

D. 8 %

Answer: B

Description: Existing rate of tax for individuals between Rs. 2.5- Rs 5 lakh is reduced to 5% from 10%.

Q8). What percent of surcharge on income tax would be levied on individuals with income between Rs. 50 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore

A. 8 %

B. 9 %

C. 11 %

D. 10 %

Answer: D

Description: 10 % surcharge on individual income above Rs. 50 lakh and up to Rs 1 crore to make up for Rs 15,000 crore loss due to cut in personal I-T rate. 15 surcharge on individual income above Rs. 1 crore to remain.

Q9). Government plans to have single page income tax return filing form for taxable income up to Rs. ________.

A. Rs. 2 Lakh

B. Rs. 4 Lakh

C. Rs. 5 Lakh

D. Rs. 2.50 Lakh

Answer: C

Description: Centre has proposed simple one page return for people with an annual income of Rs. 5 lakh other than business income.

Q10). Small firms with turnover up to Rs.50 crore will need to pay a tax of _____ percent instead of 30 percent

A. 20 %

B. 22 %

C. 24 %

D. 25 %

Answer: D

Description: Under the corporate tax, in order to make MSME companies more viable, there is a proposal to reduce tax for small companies with a turnover of up to Rs 50 crore to 25%. About 67 lakh companies fall in this category. Ninety-six % of companies to get this benefit.

Score:

See Also :-
Union Budget for Financial Year 2017-18 Online Test

Current Affairs Feb 2017